One hundred biomarkers. Read against each other.

The sum of all cholesterol carried in the blood across LDL, HDL, and VLDL particles.

A broad cardiovascular risk indicator. Elevated total cholesterol is associated with atherosclerotic disease, though particle-based markers (ApoB, LDL-P) offer more precise risk stratification.

Cholesterol carried in LDL particles. The principal modifiable risk factor for atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease.

Lower is better for long-term cardiovascular outcomes. Target ranges depend on baseline risk profile. Statin therapy and dietary intervention are the standard means of lowering LDL-C.

Cholesterol carried in HDL particles, involved in reverse cholesterol transport.

Higher values are historically considered cardio-protective, though extremely high HDL has been associated with increased risk in some cohorts. Interpret in context of overall lipid profile.

Circulating fat molecules derived from dietary intake and hepatic synthesis.

Elevated triglycerides are a marker of insulin resistance, excess caloric intake, and, at very high levels, pancreatitis risk. Interpret alongside fasting glucose and HbA1c.

Total cholesterol minus HDL-C, reflecting all atherogenic particles including LDL, VLDL, IDL, and Lp(a).

A stronger predictor of cardiovascular events than LDL-C alone, particularly in insulin-resistant states. Target is typically 30 mg/dL above the LDL-C target.

The structural protein on every atherogenic lipoprotein particle — LDL, VLDL, IDL, and Lp(a).

A direct particle count for atherogenic particles. ApoB is increasingly favoured as the most actionable cardiovascular risk marker, especially where LDL-C and triglycerides are discordant.

A genetically determined lipoprotein strongly associated with cardiovascular risk independent of LDL.

Elevated Lp(a) is a causal risk factor for atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease. Levels are largely fixed at birth; testing once in a lifetime is sufficient for risk stratification.

A sensitive measure of low-grade systemic inflammation.

Elevated hs-CRP is associated with cardiovascular risk and metabolic inflammation. Interpret only when no acute illness is present, as infection sharply elevates the value.

An amino acid intermediate whose elevation reflects methylation dysfunction and B-vitamin status.

Moderately elevated homocysteine is associated with cardiovascular and cognitive risk. Often responds to B12, folate, and B6 repletion.

The total count of LDL particles in circulation, measured by NMR spectroscopy.

Where LDL-C and LDL-P are discordant (for example, in insulin resistance), LDL-P is the superior predictor of cardiovascular events.

A particularly atherogenic subfraction of LDL particles.

Elevated sdLDL is associated with increased cardiovascular risk and is characteristic of the atherogenic dyslipidaemia seen in metabolic syndrome.

Calculated ratio of total cholesterol to HDL cholesterol.

A simple composite cardiovascular risk ratio. Below 3.5 is considered optimal; above 5 suggests elevated risk.

Calculated as one-fifth of triglycerides when triglycerides are below 400 mg/dL.

A surrogate for triglyceride-rich atherogenic particles. Interpret alongside triglycerides and ApoB.

Blood glucose concentration after an overnight fast.

A foundational marker for diabetes risk. Interpret alongside HbA1c and fasting insulin for a fuller picture of metabolic health.

The percentage of haemoglobin that has been glycated, reflecting average blood glucose over the prior ~3 months.

The gold-standard marker for chronic glycaemic status. Less affected by short-term dietary changes than fasting glucose.

Circulating insulin concentration after an overnight fast.

Elevated fasting insulin is an early sign of insulin resistance, often preceding changes in fasting glucose or HbA1c by years.

Calculated index of insulin resistance from fasting glucose and fasting insulin.

A composite insulin-resistance score. Rising HOMA-IR over time is actionable even when fasting glucose remains normal.

A metabolic end product of purine degradation.

Elevated uric acid is associated with gout, metabolic syndrome, and cardiovascular risk. Levels reflect diet, alcohol intake, renal clearance, and fructose metabolism.

A calculated index from fasting triglycerides and fasting glucose, used as a surrogate marker of insulin resistance.

A simple and reliable insulin-resistance proxy. Useful when fasting insulin assay variability is a concern.

A by-product of endogenous insulin synthesis, released in equal molar amounts to insulin.

Distinguishes endogenous from exogenous insulin. Useful in evaluating hypoglycaemia and residual beta-cell function.

Glycated serum proteins, reflecting average blood glucose over the prior 2-3 weeks.

Complements HbA1c when short-term glycaemic change matters or when HbA1c interpretation is compromised (haemoglobinopathy, recent transfusion).

An adipocyte-derived hormone involved in satiety and energy balance.

Elevated leptin is common in obesity and indicates leptin resistance. Tested on indication.

An adipocyte-derived hormone involved in insulin sensitivity.

Inversely correlated with visceral adiposity and insulin resistance. Low values add resolution to metabolic risk assessment.

An enzyme released when hepatocytes are damaged.

The most specific routine marker of hepatocellular injury. Elevated ALT is commonly seen in non-alcoholic fatty liver disease, viral hepatitis, and drug-induced liver injury.

An enzyme found in liver, heart, muscle, and red blood cells.

Less specific than ALT. Interpret alongside ALT: an AST:ALT ratio > 2 suggests alcoholic liver disease; ratio < 1 suggests non-alcoholic fatty liver disease.

An enzyme from bile ducts, bone, and intestine.

Elevated ALP can indicate cholestasis, bile duct obstruction, or bone turnover. Fractionation distinguishes hepatic from bone origin when the cause is unclear.

A biliary enzyme sensitive to alcohol, hepatic fat, and drug-induced injury.

An early and sensitive marker of hepatobiliary stress. Often the first liver enzyme to rise in response to alcohol intake.

A pigment produced from haemoglobin breakdown, cleared by the liver.

Elevation can indicate hepatocellular dysfunction, haemolysis, or Gilbert's syndrome. Mild isolated elevation in an asymptomatic member is often benign Gilbert's.

The conjugated fraction of bilirubin.

An elevated direct fraction suggests biliary obstruction or hepatocellular damage, distinguishing these causes from haemolysis.

The principal plasma protein, produced by the liver.

A marker of hepatic synthetic function and nutritional status. Low albumin suggests chronic illness, malnutrition, or advanced liver disease.

The sum of albumin and globulins.

Interpretation requires albumin-globulin breakdown. Low total protein suggests malabsorption or synthetic failure; elevated globulin fraction can indicate inflammation or paraproteinaemia.

A muscle breakdown product cleared by the kidneys.

A standard marker of renal filtration, best interpreted through the calculated eGFR. Muscle mass affects baseline values.

A calculated estimate of glomerular filtration rate.

The primary measure of renal function. Chronic kidney disease staging depends on eGFR trend across repeated measurements.

Nitrogen carried in urea, a protein metabolism end product.

Elevated BUN can indicate dehydration, high protein intake, or renal dysfunction. Interpret with creatinine — BUN:Cr ratio distinguishes prerenal from intrinsic causes.

A filtration marker less dependent on muscle mass than creatinine.

A more sensitive marker of early renal dysfunction, particularly in low-muscle-mass individuals and athletes where creatinine is misleading.

The principal extracellular cation.

Abnormalities reflect fluid balance and antidiuretic hormone function rather than dietary intake. Chronic hyponatraemia warrants investigation.

The principal intracellular cation.

Abnormalities have cardiac implications and require attention. Spurious elevation from haemolysis during collection is common.

The principal extracellular anion.

Typically shifts in parallel with sodium. Informs acid-base status when interpreted with bicarbonate.

The principal buffer in the blood, reflecting acid-base status.

Low bicarbonate suggests metabolic acidosis (renal, diabetic, or respiratory compensation). Elevated values suggest metabolic alkalosis.

A urinary marker of early glomerular damage.

The earliest marker of diabetic and hypertensive nephropathy. Elevation precedes eGFR decline and warrants intervention.

The pituitary hormone that regulates thyroid output.

The most sensitive screening marker for thyroid dysfunction. Elevated TSH suggests hypothyroidism; suppressed TSH suggests hyperthyroidism.

The biologically active form of thyroid hormone.

Measures the unbound, active fraction of T3. Useful when symptoms suggest thyroid dysfunction despite a normal TSH.

The unbound fraction of the primary thyroid hormone T4.

Confirms and characterises TSH-flagged thyroid dysfunction. Normal Free T4 with elevated TSH defines subclinical hypothyroidism.

An inactive metabolite of T4 produced under stress, illness, and caloric restriction.

Elevated rT3 with normal TSH can indicate thyroid hormone resistance, chronic stress, or severe illness. Interpretation is nuanced and requires clinical correlation.

An autoantibody directed at thyroid peroxidase.

The principal marker of Hashimoto's thyroiditis. Once detected and characterised, repeat testing adds limited value over time.

An autoantibody directed at thyroglobulin.

Supports the diagnosis of autoimmune thyroid disease, particularly when TPO antibodies are borderline.

The sum of free and bound testosterone in circulation.

The foundational marker of gonadal function in men. Age-appropriate ranges matter; a value of 400 is different at age 32 than at age 62.

The unbound, biologically active fraction of testosterone.

A better reflection of tissue-level androgen availability than total testosterone, particularly when SHBG is abnormal.

A liver-produced protein that binds sex hormones in circulation.

SHBG modifies the interpretation of total testosterone and estradiol. Low SHBG is associated with insulin resistance; high SHBG is seen with hyperthyroidism, oral estrogen, and hepatic dysfunction.

An adrenal androgen precursor.

Declines with age. Low DHEA-S is associated with adrenal fatigue states; high DHEA-S in women warrants evaluation for adrenal or ovarian pathology.

The principal estrogen in women of reproductive age; present in lower concentrations in men.

Interpreted differently across the menstrual cycle and menopausal status in women. In men, elevated E2 from aromatisation of testosterone is a cause of gynaecomastia and mood changes.

A steroid hormone, elevated in the luteal phase and during pregnancy.

Luteal-phase progesterone confirms ovulation. Perimenopausal decline is associated with sleep disruption and mood changes.

A pituitary hormone driving gonadal steroid production.

Distinguishes primary from secondary hypogonadism. Elevated LH with low testosterone indicates primary testicular failure.

A pituitary hormone driving follicular development and spermatogenesis.

Elevated FSH in women is a key marker of diminished ovarian reserve and perimenopausal transition. In men, elevated FSH with normal testosterone suggests isolated spermatogenic failure.

A pituitary hormone.

Elevated prolactin can suppress gonadal function and warrants evaluation for pituitary adenoma, medication effect, or hypothyroidism.

A marker of ovarian reserve in women.

Declines with age. A key fertility-planning marker. Interpretation is context-specific; tested by member request in the relevant demographic.

A prostate glycoprotein elevated in prostate disease.

Screening value in men over 45 with informed consent. Elevation requires urological follow-up. Interpretation nuanced by age and prostate volume.

The unbound fraction of PSA, expressed as a percentage of total PSA.

A lower free PSA percentage with elevated total PSA raises suspicion of prostate malignancy.

The primary glucocorticoid, peaking in the early morning.

Assesses HPA-axis function. Markedly low AM cortisol warrants evaluation for adrenal insufficiency; markedly elevated values warrant evaluation for Cushing's syndrome.

A growth factor mediating many effects of growth hormone.

A stable proxy for growth hormone status. Elevated IGF-1 with appropriate clinical picture raises concern for acromegaly; low IGF-1 with symptoms suggests adult growth hormone deficiency.

The unconjugated adrenal androgen precursor.

Complements DHEA-S as a marker of adrenal reserve. Interpretation combined with cortisol and DHEA-S.

A precursor to all steroid hormones.

Low pregnenolone can suggest an upstream steroidogenesis limitation. Tested on indication.

The primary regulator of serum calcium.

Evaluates the calcium-PTH-vitamin D axis. Elevated PTH with elevated calcium suggests primary hyperparathyroidism.

Total leukocyte count.

Elevated in infection, inflammation, leukaemia, and corticosteroid use. Low WBC warrants evaluation for marrow suppression, viral illness, or autoimmune disease.

Total erythrocyte count.

Interpret alongside haemoglobin and MCV. Distinguishes absolute erythrocytosis from haemoconcentration.

The oxygen-carrying protein in red blood cells.

The principal marker for anaemia. Interpretation requires MCV classification to identify the underlying cause.

The proportion of blood volume occupied by red cells.

Tracks with haemoglobin. Useful for assessing plasma volume shifts and erythrocytosis.

The average volume of a red blood cell.

Classifies anaemia as microcytic (iron deficiency, thalassaemia), normocytic (acute blood loss, chronic disease), or macrocytic (B12/folate deficiency, alcohol).

The average mass of haemoglobin per red blood cell.

Complements MCV in characterising anaemia. Low MCH is seen in iron deficiency and thalassaemia.

The average concentration of haemoglobin within red blood cells.

Elevated MCHC is seen in hereditary spherocytosis. Low MCHC is seen with iron deficiency.

Variation in red cell size.

Elevated RDW indicates heterogeneity in red cell volumes and is often the earliest sign of evolving iron, B12, or folate deficiency before MCV becomes abnormal.

Total platelet count.

Low platelet count affects bleeding risk and warrants evaluation for drug effect, viral illness, or marrow disease. Elevated platelet count can be reactive (inflammation) or clonal.

Average platelet volume.

Elevated MPV indicates higher platelet turnover. Provides context in thrombocytopenia evaluation.

Absolute neutrophil count.

The primary infection-fighting leukocyte. Elevated in bacterial infection and acute stress; severely low ANC is associated with infection risk.

Absolute lymphocyte count.

Elevated in viral infection and lymphoproliferative disease. Low in stress, corticosteroid exposure, and some viral infections.

Absolute monocyte count.

Elevated in chronic inflammation, tuberculosis, and some malignancies.

Absolute eosinophil count.

Elevated in allergy, atopic disease, helminth infection, and drug reactions.

Absolute basophil count.

Rarely elevated in routine practice. Persistent elevation raises concern for chronic myeloid leukaemia.

The percentage of immature red cells in circulation.

Distinguishes hypoproliferative anaemia from anaemia with appropriate marrow response. Essential in anaemia workup.

An enzyme released from skeletal and cardiac muscle.

Elevation suggests muscle injury. Interpret in the context of exercise, statin use, and symptoms.

A cytoplasmic enzyme released on cell turnover or damage.

A non-specific marker of tissue damage. Elevation warrants clinical correlation.

Circulating iron bound to transferrin.

Interpret alongside TIBC and ferritin. A single value in isolation is of limited meaning.

The total capacity of transferrin to bind iron.

Elevated in iron deficiency. Suppressed in chronic inflammation and hepatic disease.

The proportion of transferrin occupied by iron.

A percentage below 20 suggests iron deficiency. Persistent elevation above 45 warrants evaluation for haemochromatosis.

An intracellular iron storage protein whose circulating level correlates with iron stores.

Low ferritin confirms iron deficiency. Elevated ferritin is non-specific — interpret in the context of inflammation (hs-CRP) before concluding iron overload.

The circulating storage form of vitamin D.

Widespread insufficiency in India despite sun exposure. Optimal range for musculoskeletal and immune function is 40 to 60 ng/mL.

Circulating cobalamin.

Low B12 causes macrocytic anaemia and neurological symptoms. Vegetarian and vegan Indian members are particularly at risk; active B12 (holotranscobalamin) and MMA refine interpretation at borderline values.

Circulating folate.

Required for methylation and red cell production. Deficiency produces macrocytic anaemia and elevated homocysteine.

Serum magnesium concentration.

Serum magnesium reflects only ~1% of body stores and often underestimates tissue deficiency. Interpret alongside symptoms (cramping, poor sleep, arrhythmia risk).

Serum phosphate concentration.

Interpret alongside calcium, vitamin D, and parathyroid hormone when indicated. Rarely abnormal in healthy adults.

A metabolite that accumulates in functional B12 deficiency.

A more sensitive indicator of tissue B12 deficiency than serum B12, particularly when B12 is borderline (200-400 pg/mL).

Total serum calcium.

Interpret with albumin (corrected calcium). Persistent elevation warrants evaluation for parathyroid or malignant causes.

Plasma zinc concentration.

Relevant to immune function, wound healing, and testosterone synthesis. Interpretation requires morning draw and attention to acute-phase confounding.

Circulating retinol.

Deficiency is uncommon in well-nourished adults but seen in malabsorption. Excess from supplementation is hepatotoxic.

The principal fat-soluble antioxidant vitamin.

Deficiency is uncommon; levels are affected by lipid status. Interpret alongside lipids.

A trace element involved in antioxidant enzymes and thyroid hormone metabolism.

Insufficient selenium impairs thyroid hormone conversion and antioxidant capacity. Widespread mild insufficiency in parts of India.

A trace element and acute-phase reactant.

Persistent elevation warrants investigation. Low values are seen with zinc excess and in Menkes disease. Test on indication.

The active form of vitamin B6.

Required for homocysteine metabolism and neurotransmitter synthesis. Deficiency is common in chronic alcohol use and malabsorption.

A non-specific marker of inflammation.

Slower to rise and fall than hs-CRP. Useful for tracking chronic inflammatory conditions over time.

The same ferritin measurement, interpreted as an acute-phase reactant.

Markedly elevated ferritin (> 500 ng/mL) in the absence of iron overload can indicate systemic inflammation or infection. Context from hs-CRP and ESR is essential.

The percentage of EPA + DHA in red blood cell membranes.

Below 4% is associated with cardiovascular risk; above 8% is targeted for cardioprotection. Responsive to dietary and supplemental omega-3 intake.

A cytokine central to the acute-phase inflammatory response.

Chronically elevated IL-6 is associated with cardiovascular risk, sarcopenia, and accelerated ageing. Tested on indication where chronic inflammation is suspected.

A clotting factor and acute-phase reactant.

Elevated fibrinogen contributes to thrombotic risk and tracks with inflammation. Adds resolution to cardiovascular risk assessment.

An autoantibody used in coeliac disease screening.

Elevated values raise suspicion of coeliac disease and warrant gastroenterology referral. Requires concurrent total IgA to interpret reliably.

Total serum IgA concentration.

IgA deficiency affects interpretation of anti-tTG IgA. Elevated IgA can indicate chronic infection or inflammation.